000-047 Test information:
Number of questions: 63
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 73%
Test languages: English
Section 1 � BPMN Architecture
Describe Enterprise Architecture in the context of +System Architect’s implementation of Business Process Modeling Notation (BPMN)
Define an Enterprise Direction diagram
Identify and Describe Business Process Models & BPMN
Describe the purpose and use of Business Process diagrams & Business Process Hierarchy diagrams
Define a Business Process Diagram
Section 2 � Using System Architect
Explain the purpose and use of the System Architect Encyclopedia
Explain the purpose of the Guidebook
Purpose/Use of Explorer (Browser)
Explain the purpose and use of Matrices
Explain the use of symbol styles
Describe the features of the Import/Export function
Describe the capabilities of the Merge/Extract feature
Section 3 � BPMN Symbols and Methodology
Identify Flow Object Symbols
Identify Connection Objects and Rules
Identify Swimlanes

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000-047 practice exam
1. Which three categories of symbols are represented on Business Process Diagrams? (Select three.)
A. Swimlanes
B. Stereotypes
C. Flow Objects
D. Decision Trees
E. Connecting Objects
Answer: ACE
2. Which two System Architect functions can be used to copy selected diagrams and/or data definitions from one project encyclopedia into another? (Select two.)
A. Data Import
B. File Export/Import
C. Encyclopedia Merge
D. Encyclopedia Extract
E. Encyclopedia Transfer
Answer: CD
3. Which three enterprise architecture frameworks are supported by Rational System Architect? (Select three.)
A. NAF
B. TAFIM
C. MODAF
D. DoDAF
E. AGATE
Answer: ACD

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000-023 Test information:
Number of questions: 28
Time allowed in minutes: 60
Required passing score: 78%
Section 1: Tivoli Worldwide Customer Support Overview
Support Provider’s Level 1 and Level 2 roles and responsibilities.
Options available to our customers to obtain IBM customer support.
Section 2: Support Provider’s Roles and Responsibilities
Support Provider Level 1 support procedures and problem determination activities.
Support Provider’s Level 2 support procedures and problem determination activities.
Section 3: Terminology
Knowledge of various IBM Tivoli Support terms and definitions.

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000-023 test
1. Which two resources are available on the IBM developerWorks website? (Choose two.)
A. Latest test fixes released by development.
B. Software licenses for proof of concept installs.
C. Web-based community forums and Wiki pages.D. List of new features still under development for each product.
E. Technical tutorials and demos for developers and administrators.
Answer: CE
2. What are two responsibilities of the Primary Site Technical Contact? (Choose two.)
A. Opening all PMRs on behalf of all their Support Analysts.
B. Downloading software from Passport Advantage for use by the end user.
C. Assigning up to nine Secondary Site Technical Contact per end user contract.
D. Uploading all End User Debug files to ESR/SR on behalf of their support analysts.
E. Accept or deny a request for a Support Provider’s engineer to obtain access to an end users account.
Answer: CE
3. When searching the knowledge base on the IBM Support website, what is the best search strategy for finding targeted information?
A. Select just one product and only one keyword.
B. Select the product, operating system and a date range.
C. Target a wide set of records, by using just one keyword.
D. Select the product(s) and other specific criteria for which a solution is required.
Answer: D

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000-016 Test information:
Number of questions: 64
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 65%
Test languages: English
Section : Assets
Given that IBM Tivoli Asset Management for IT V7.1 has been installed and the basic system data has been set up, create non-rotating assets based upon the customer’s requirements, so that non-rotating assets have been created and their current locations identified.
With emphasis on performing the following tasks:
Open the Assets application.
Click the New Asset button.
Enter the following information:
The asset number and description
Asset Type
Manufacturer and serial number
Custodian and User
If the asset is saved before entering the location, you have to use the Move/Modify Asset Select Action to enter the asset’s location.
From the location field, open the drilldown and navigate to the operating location where the asset resides.
Enter the following optional information:
Failure Class
Priority – the relative criticality of this asset over other assets
If the asset is down unchecked the field Asset Up?
Click the Save Asset button.
Repeat above steps until all non-rotating assets have been created.

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000-015 Test information:
Number of questions: 69
Time allowed in minutes: 105
Required passing score: 71%
Test languages: English
Section – Assets
Given that Maximo has been installed and the basic system data has been set up, define the key differences between assets and rotating assets so that rotating assets functionality has been understood.
With emphasis on performing the following tasks:
Rotating assets are assets that are interchangeable.
Rotating assets have a unique asset number and an inventory item number; the item must be marked as rotating. Service Items cannot be marked as rotating; the items found in the Item Master or Tools application can be marked as rotating. Non-rotating assets do not reference an item number.
Rotating assets can be located in a storeroom, either an item storeroom or a tool storeroom. Therefore, rotating assets are often assets that can be repaired/overhauled and where stock is held in a storeroom.
Rotating assets can also exist in labor and courier locations where these have been set up to maintain a balance of an item. Non-rotating and rotating assets can exist in operating locations, vendor, salvage, and repair locations.
Rotating assets can have an Item Assembly Structure (IAS) applied. The IAS can be considered as a template for a hierarchy of assets, saving time when creating many similar asset hierarchies.
The classification of a rotating asset is determined from its Rotating Item. If the attribute values are updated on the Rotating Item, they are also changed on all rotating assets that belong to this Rotating Item.

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000-139 torrent
1. After 30 minutes your scan stops with an out-of-session error.
What is a possible cause of this error?
A. Redundant path limit was too low.
B. A parameter was not tracked.
C. Flash parsing was turned off.
D. Platform authentication was not configured.
Answer: B
2. In which three areas does AppScan test for vulnerabilities?
A. the network layer, the web application, the web server
B. the operating system, the web application platform, the database
C. the web application, the web server, the web application platform
D. the web application platform, the network layer, the web server
Answer: C
3. Which type of vulnerability allows an attacker to browse files that shouldnt be accessible (e.g. *.bak, “Copy of”, *.inc, etc.) or pages restricted for users with higher privileges?
A. Insecure Cryptographic Storage
B. Injection Flaw
C. Failure to Restrict URL Access
D. Insecure Communication
Answer: C

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1. How does an attacker exploit Web application vulnerabilities?
A. by hacking the firewall
B. by installing viruses on a users machine
C. by sending malicious HTTP requests
D. by sniffing the traffic between a user and the Web server
Answer: C
2. In which three areas does AppScan test for vulnerabilities?
A. the network layer, the web application, the web server
B. the operating system, the web application platform, the database
C. the web application, the web server, the web application platform
D. the web application platform, the network layer, the web server
Answer: C
3. Which type of vulnerability allows an attacker to browse files that shouldnt be accessible (e.g. *.bak, “Copy of”, *.inc, etc.) or pages restricted for users with higher privileges?
A. Insecure Cryptographic Storage
B. Injection Flaw
C. Failure to Restrict URL Access
D. Insecure Communication
Answer: C

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1. corporation has employed a third-party company to perform black-box penetration on their network. The corporation will provide:
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Answer: D
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Answer: C
3. Which of the following organizational documentation describes how tasks or job functions should be conducted?
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D. Procedures
Answer: D

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1. When made by a customer, which comment, is most likely to indicate that a conflict is developing?
A. I am tired of my computer always being down.
B. I don’t understand what you mean.
C. I see what you are saying to me.
D. You need to slow down.
Answer: A
2. Why is it important for you to demonstrate confidence when dealing with others?
A. Demonstrating confidence establishes credibility with customers.
B. Demonstrating confidence increases first contact resolution.
C. Demonstrating confidence maximises talk time.
D. Demonstrating confidence minimises conflicts with customers.
Answer: A
3. What is a best practice for helping an emotional caller?
A. Ask the customer to talk about their personal problems.
B. Help the customer focus on the Incident and resolution.
C. Maintain a professional approach according to the SLA.
D. Move the conversation carefully on to general issues within the company.
Answer: B

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1. Given: ABC Company’s network administrator was just asked to install a 5 GHz OFDM bridge link between two buildings. He connected a WLAN bridge with a 50-ohm output to a 50-ohm RF coaxial cable. He connected the other end of the RF coaxial cable to a 25-ohm, 6 dBi Yagi antenna.
What is the maximum VSWR between the WLAN bridge and the Yagi antenna?
A. 1.0:1
B. 1.1:1
C. 1.2:1
D. 1.5:1
E. 2.0:1
F. 1.0:2
Answer: E
2. As an RF wave propagates through space, the wave front experiences natural expansion. What is the detrimental effect of this expansion in a WLAN system?
A. Linear Diffusion Loss
B. Signal Attenuation
C. Transmission Obfuscation
D. Fresnel Zone Thinning
E. Azimuth Inflation
Answer: B
3. What factors affect the distance that an RF signal can be effectively received?
A. Transmitting station’s antenna type
B. Receiving station’s radio sensitivity
C. Fresnel zone blockage
D. Power over Ethernet (PoE) usage
E. Antenna connector type
F. Distance between access points
Answer: ABC

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1. Which of the following products are part of the VMware Infrastructure 3 software suite?
A. VMware Virtual Desktop Manager
B. VMware Distributed Resource Scheduler
C. VMware Update Manager
D. VMware Site Recovery Manager
Answer: BC
2. A company decides to explore virtualization options for one of their departments. Their environment and requirements are:
(1) The users should be able to create their own virtual machines
(2) The users are running Windows XP on their desktops.
(3) Several virtual machines will be set up for each user and they should be able to run them all at the same time.
(4) The users will use the software to edit memory settings after the virtual machine is installed.
(5) Virtual machine performance and high availability are more important than keeping costs low.
(6) These machines WILL be run in production and WILL be used or managed remotely.
What is the correct solution based on these criteria?
A. give the users VMware VirtualCenter Client 2.x and grant them permission to create virtual machines on an ESX Server 3.x, with access to all necessary operating system ISOs
B. give the users VMware Workstation 6.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
C. give the users VMware Server 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
D. give the users VMware Player 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
Answer: A
3. How does ESX Server 3.x differ from VMware Server?
A. ESX Server 3.x supports 64-bit guest operating systems and VMware Server 2.x does not.
B. ESX Server 3.x supports VMware VirtualCenter and VMware Server 2.x does not.
C. ESX Server 3.x supports Intel Virtualization Technology (VT) and VMware Server 2.x does not.
D. ESX Server 3.x supports 4 processor Virtual SMP and VMware Server 2.x does not.
Answer: D

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1. An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need to be increased during installation as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C
2. Which of the following tasks can be selected from the home page of an ESX Server (Choose Three)?
A. Download VMware vCenter Server
B. Browse Objects Managed by this Host
C. Browse Virtual Machines in this Host’s inventory
D. Browse Datastores in this Host’s inventory
E. Download VMware Web Access Client
Answer: ABD
3. When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

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000-443 Preparation tool
1. What is the default duration of a security token generated to access a resource manager object?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 2 hours
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B
2. The migrator process has been set to check for data to migrate at intervals of 15 minutes between 8:30 PM and 4:30 AM. Sometimes the migration process takes about 20 minutes to complete. What happens when the last migration process commences?
A. The migrator will start logging errors as soon as it hits 4:30 AM.
B. The migrator will stop if it runs past 4:30 AM and resume at 8:30 PM from where it stopped.
C. The migrator will complete the last migration process and will stop until the next cycle begins.
D. The migrator will stop at 4:30 AM and an optional flag can be set to email an administrator of a stalled migration.
Answer: C
3. Additional privileges were added to a privilege set associated with a user group, which has been assigned to an ACL. However, a user in this user group does not see these privileges. Which of the following is a possible reason for this outcome?
A. The user belongs to a subdomain.
B. The privilege was added to a different privilege set.
C. The user is not a Content Manager system administrator.
D. An ACL cannot grant more access than a user has in the privilege set associated with their user ID.
Answer: D

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000-891 practice exam
1. Which security token may carry user attribute information as part of the defined token format?
A. Kerberos
B. RACF Token
C. SAML Assertion
D. Username Token
Answer: C
2. RBTelco is a large multinational company that outsources health care benefit management to RBBenefits. RBTelco employees access RBBenefits resources through an authenticate-able account at each company. RBBenefit and RBTelco will use SAML V1.0.
Which IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business (ITAMeb) and IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager (ITFIM) components are required to be installed at RBTelco?
A. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console
B. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console, WebSEAL Application Developer Kit
C. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb Java Runtime Environment, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console, WebSEAL Application Developer Kit
D. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb Java Runtime Environment, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console, ITFIM Demonstration Scenarios, WebSEAL Application Developer Kit
Answer: A
3. Click the Exhibit button.
You want to use TCPMON between the two WS-Provisioning Service instances.
How do you configure the endpoint of the partner WS-Provisioning service (i.e., the destination of step 3) so that TCPMON can be used?
A. modify the ITFIMClientIDI.properties file
B. modify the ITFIMClientScript.constants file
C. use the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager Console to modify a custom runtime parameter
D. use the WebSphere Application Server Administration Console to modify the WS-Provisioning application properties
Answer: C

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000-934 Exam Objectives
1. Which option would be included in the lifecycle management design?
A. reconciliation schedule for all UNIX services
B. approval requirements for the Active Directory accounts
C. e-mail notification to the service owner when accounts are provisioned
D. e-mail notification requirements when a new IBM Tivoli Identity Manager identity is created with an HR feed
Answer: D
2. A custom adapter can support which basic operations for user accounts on the target system?
A. Add, Delete, Suspend, Restore, Clone
B. Add, Delete, Suspend, Restore, Modify
C. Add, Delete, Suspend, Restore, Modify, Search
D. Add, Delete, Suspend, Restore, Reconcile, Purge
Answer: C
3. Which choice is relevant to creating the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (ITIM) system architecture document?
A. whether to perform ITIM database backup weekly or daily
B. whether to allow the End User View holders to delete accounts or not delete accounts
C. whether to implement the RBAC (role-based access control) model in ITIM or the DAC (discretionary access control) model in ITIM
D. whether to install ITIM as an all-in-one installation or to separate the application server, directory server, and database server components
Answer: D

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000-918 study material
1. Click the Exhibit button.
exhibit Missing
In the exhibit, how does an IDS database administrator or programmer ensure that only committed data will be seen and that no locking errors will occur?
A. Change user 1 isolation level to dirty read.
B. Change user 2 isolation level to dirty read.
C. Change user 1 isolation level to committed read last committed.
D. Change user 2 isolation level to committed read last committed.
Answer: D
2. Click the Exhibit button.
Given the sqexplain output in the exhibit, which SQL statement will make the est_rows column accurate?
exhibit Missing
A. update statistics high for table
B. update statistics high for systables
C. update statistics high for table orders
D. update statistics high for table customer
Answer: A
3. A user wants to save SQL explain output to the file: /tmp/myexplain.out. Which syntax should be used?
A. set explain on file to /tmp/myexplain.out
B. set explain on file /tmp/myexplain.out
C. set explain file /tmp/myexplain.out
D. set explain file to /tmp/myexplain.out
Answer: D

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